ᴛᴇᴄʜɴᴏғᴜɴ

Monday, 29 October 2018




Question
Project has uncertainties on some functionalities at the beginning which will improve over time. Which software development model is suitable?
Select one:
a. None of the above
b. Waterfall
c. Iterative
d. Incremental

The Correct answer is: None of the above

Question
The prototyping model of software development is

Select one:
a. A reasonable approach when requirements are well defined.
b. A risky model that rarely produces a meaningful product.
c. The best approach to use for projects with large development teams.
d. A useful approach when a customer cannot define requirements clearly.

The Correct answer is: A useful approach when a customer cannot define requirements clearly.

Question
The objective of ____ is to determine a specific value based on a predetermined discount rate.

Select one:
a. project evaluation and review technique (PERT)
b. return on investment (ROI)
c. cost/benefit analysis
d. net present value (NPV)

The Correct answer is: net present value

Question
Which of the following is not an effective software project management focus?

Select one:
a. process
b. product
c. popularity
d. people

The Correct answer is: popularity

Question
Object point method best suited for

Select one:
a. Designing
b. Testing
c. Coding
d. Estimation

The correct answer is: Estimation

Question
This term is least critical from customer view point
Select one:
a. UAT
b. Unit testing
c. Delivery timeliness
d. Milestones

The Correct answer is: Milestones

Question
Following method is not used for project planning

Select one:
a. Activity Diagram
b. CPM
c. Timesheet
d. Gantt chart

The Correct answer is: Timesheet

Question
There are ________ types of Work Breakdown Structures.
Select one:
a. Four
b. Three
c.  none
d. Two
The Correct answer is: Two
Question
The following is not a phase activity of waterfall model

a. architecture
b. Requirements analysis
c. Software enhancement
d. System testing

The Correct answer is: Software enhancement

Question
WBS in a project deals with

a. none of the above
b. designing
c. project reviews
d. division of work into tasks

The Correct answer is: division of work into tasks.

Question
Which of the following estimation method is independent of technology, methodology and platforms

a. Function point
b. work breakdown structure
c. delphi
d. SLOC

The Correct answer is: Function point

Question
Which of the following is not achieved by an automated estimation tools?
Select one:
a. Predicting clients demands.
b. Predicting software schedules.
c. Predicting software cost.
d. Predicting staffing levels.

The Correct answer is: Predicting clients demands.

Question
The Mangers use the acronym SMART while goal setting. What does SMART stand for?
Select one:
a. spectacular, measurable, actionable, resourced, timely
b. specific, measurable, achievable, relevant, timely
c. suitable, measurable, actionable, reviewed, timely
d. standardised, measurable, actionable, resourced, timely

The Correct answer is: specific, measurable, achievable, relevant, timely

Question
Which of these is NOT true for a matrix organizational structure?
Select one:
a. It follows the unity of command principle rigorously
b. Task and personality conflicts are a disadvantage of Matrix structure
c. Individual operators have to do double reporting both to a Project Manager and to the Functional manager
d. It is generally employed in project driven organizations

The Correct answer is: It follows the unity of command principle rigorously

Question
Which of the following is incorrect activity for the configuration management of a software system?

Select one:
a. System management
b. Version management
c. Internship management
d. Change management

The Correct answer is: Internship management

Question
Arrange the following steps to form a basic/general Engineering Process Model.

1)Test
2)Design
3)Install
4)Specification
5)Manufacture
6)Maintain

Select one:
a. 4, 2, 5, 1, 3, 6
b. 2, 4, 5, 1, 3, 6
c. 4, 2, 5, 1, 6, 3
d. 2, 4, 5, 1, 6, 3

The Correct answer is: 4, 2, 5, 1, 3, 6

Question
Which of the following software development model is suitable for large size project?

Select one:
a. Water fall
b. XP
c. Incremental
d. Prototyping

The Correct answer is: Incremental

Question
In FP, adjustment factor is measured in the range of

Select one:
a. 16 – 20
b. 0 – 5
c. 6 – 10
d. 11 – 15

The Correct answer is: 0 – 5

Question
Which model is used during early stages of the system design after the requirements have been established?

Select one:
a. An application-composition model
b. A reuse model
c. A post-architecture model
d. An early design model

The Correct answer is: An early design model

Question
Project management (PM) is the application of _________________ to meet project requirements.
Select one:
a. skills, tools and techniques
b. knowledge, skills, tools and techniques
c. knowledge, tools and techniques
d. knowledge, skills, tools

The Correct answer is: knowledge, skills, tools and techniques

Question
A ____ is the sequence of processing steps that completely handles one business transaction or customer request
Select one:
a. Model
b. Workflow
c. Prototype
d. Mock-up

The Correct answer is: Workflow

Question
______ model is not suitable for accommodating any change
Select one:
a. Waterfall Model
b. Prototyping Model
c. Build & Fix Model
d. RAD Model

The Correct answer is: Waterfall Model

Question
Smith is a project manager for ABC Video games. He has produced a project network diagram and has updated the activity list. Which process have he just finished?
Select one:
a. The Activity Sequencing process, which identifies all the activities dependences
b. The Activity Sequencing process, which identifies all the specific activities of the project
c. The activity duration Estimating process, which identifies all the dependent activities of the project
d. The activity duration Estimating process, which diagram project network time estimates

Question
What type of measure is LOC?

Select one:
a. Indirect
b. Delphi
c. Direct
d. Top down

The Correct answer is: Direct

Question
RAD Software process model stands for _____.

Select one:
a. Relative Application Development.
b. Rapid Application Design.
c. Recent Application Development.
d. Rapid Application Development.

The Correct answer is: Rapid Application Development.

Question
A team working on a sprint learns that it will not be able to achieve the sprint goal, then which of the following action is most appropriate to take:

Select one:
a. Keep working to get as close to the sprint goal as possible and all the unfinished items are moved back to the product backlog after the end of the current sprint.
b. Change the sprint goal to what seems achievable
c. Declare the sprint as failed and work out an alternative plan to reach the sprint goal
d. Cancel the sprint and immediately start a new sprint

The Correct answer is: Keep working to get as close to the sprint goal as possible and all the unfinished items are moved back to the product backlog after the end of the current sprint.

Question
Success is measured through the success criteria established for an individual project or program that should answer which of the following question/s:

Select one:
a. Are there benefits to what was delivered?
b. Did the process used to get to the end point work well?
c. Did the project deliver what was asked for?
d. All of above

The Correct answer is: All of above

Question
Which technique is applicable when other projects in the same analogy application domain have been completed?

Select one:
a. Algorithmic cost modelling
b. Parkinson’s Law
c. Estimation by analogy
d. Expert judgement

The Correct answer is: Estimation by analogy

Question
A _________ is developed using historical cost information that relates some software metric to the project cost.

Select one:
a. Estimation by analogy
b. Parkinson’s Law
c. Expert judgement
d. Algorithmic cost modelling

The Correct answer is: Algorithmic cost modelling

Question
Which of the following costs is not part of the total effort cost?
Select one:
a. Costs of support staff
b. Costs of lunch time food
c. Costs of networking and communications
d. Costs of providing heating and lighting office space

The Correct answer is: Costs of lunch time food

Question
Which of the following is the process of assembling program components, data, and libraries, and then compiling and linking these to create an executable system?
Select one:
a. Change management
b. Version management
c. Release management
d. System building

The Correct answer is: System building

Question
What should be done by the project manager to ensure that all work in the project is included?

Select one:
a. Create a scope statement
b. Create a contingency plan
c. Create a WBS
d. Create a risk management plan

The Correct answer is: Create a WBS

Question
What the system should do is described by the _____________requirement

Select one:
a. Functional
b. Non-functional

The Correct answer is: Functional

Question
The ______________should be followed to ensure software quality management of the project
Select one:
a. Time
b. Cost
c. processes
d. scope

The Correct answer is: processes

Question
When can selected common process framework activities be omitted during process decomposition?

Select one:
a. Any time the software is mission critical.
b. Never—the activities should always occur
c. When the project is extremely small in size.
d. Rapid prototyping does not require their use

The Correct answer is: Never—the activities should always occur

Question
What is the first step in Project Planning?

Select one:
a. Establish the objectives and scope.
b. Determine the project constraints.
c. Determine the budget.
d. Select a team organizational model.

The Correct answer is: Establish the objectives and scope

Question
Project managers have to assess the risks that may affect a project.

Select one:
a. True
b. False

The Correct answer is: False

Question
Which of the following is a people-intensive activity?
Select one:
a. Project management
b. Organization
c. Motivation
d. Problem solving

The Correct answer is: Project management

Question
What are the signs that a software project is in trouble?
Select one:
a. Changes are managed poorly.
b. Deadlines are unrealistiC)
c. The product scope is poorly defineD)
d. All of the given options.

The Correct answer is: All of the given options.

Question
One technique of Black Box testing is Equivalence Partitioning. In a program statement that accepts only one choice from among 10 possible choices,numbered 1 through 10, the middle partition would be from _____ to _____

Select one:
a. 1 to 10
b. 0 to 10
c. 4 to 6
d. None

The Correct answer is: 1 to 10

Question
_____ is not a phase of Prototyping Model

Select one:
a. Engineer Product
b. Coding
c. Quick Design
d. Prototype Refinement

The Correct answer is: Coding

Question
Advantages of using LOC (lines of code) as a size-oriented metric is

Select one:
a. LOC is easily computed.
b. LOC can be computed before a design is completed.
c. LOC is a language dependent measure.
d. LOC is a language independent measure.

The Correct answer is: LOC is easily computed.

Question
Which one of the statements is correct - BVA is to use input variable values at

Select one:
a. Only on normal, minimum and just above the minimum
b. Only on normal and minimum values but not on maximum values
c. Only on normal, maximum and just below maximum
d. Only on normal, minimum, just above minimum, maximum and just below maximum

The Correct answer is: Only on normal, minimum, just above minimum, maximum and just below maximum

Question
If a software production gets behind schedule, one can add more programmers and catch up.
Select one:
a. True
b. False

The Correct answer is: False

Question
Which of the following is not a Software Configuration Management Activity?

Select one:
a. Configuration item identification
b. Release management
c. Branch management
d. Risk management

The Correct answer is: Risk management

Question
A 66.6% risk is considered as

Select one:
a. high
b. very low
c. moderate
d. low

The Correct answer is: Decomposition

Question
Which of the following is not project management goal?

Select one:
a. Maintaining a happy and well-functioning development team
b. Delivering the software to the customer at the agreed time
c. Keeping overall costs within budget
d. Avoiding customer complaints

The Correct answer is: Avoiding customer complaints

Question
The project life cycle consists of
Select one:
a. Objectives of the project
b. All of the above
c. Formulation and planning various activities
d. Understanding the scope of the project

The Correct answer is: All of the above

Question
The following is not a prototype type

Select one:
a. Throw away
b. Throw in
c. Incremental
d. None of the above

The Correct answer is: Throw in

Question
The project planner examines the statement of scope and extracts all important software functions which is known as

Select one:
a. Decomposition
b. All of the given options
c. Planning process
d. Association

The Correct answer is: Decomposition

Question
If no. of error before delivery is 15 and no. of defects after delivery is 25 then, DRE is

Select one:
a. 0.625
b. 0.375
c. 2.65
d. 1

The Correct answer is: 0.375

Question
The term ____ refers to all the people who have an interest in the successful implementation of the system

Select one:
a. stakeholders
b. clients
c. users
d. middle managers

The Correct answer is: stakeholders

Question
Which of the following is a requirement management activity ?

Select one:
a. Construction and Test
b. Design
c. Investigation
d. All of the mentioned

The Correct answer is: All of the mentioned

Question
If an activity on the critical path takes longer than anticipated, then:

A. Activities not on the critical path have additional slack.
B. Activities not on the critical path have less slack.
C. Additional critical path activities will appear.
D. None of the above.

The Correct answer is: Activities not on the critical path have additional slack.

Question
A _________ is defined as "the work breakdown that covers the acquisition of a specific defense material item and is related to contractual effort." Select correct option:

Select one:
a. Contract WBS
b. Program WBS
c. None of given
d. Contract Program WBS

The Correct answer is: Program WBS

Question
Requirements are refined and analyzed to assess their clarity, completeness, and_______

Select one:
a. Concurrency
b. None of given
c. Consistency
d. Correctness

The Correct answer is: Consistency

Question
This is done before a Project begins

Select one:
a. Project review
b. Effort estimation
c. Time estimation
d. User Acceptance

The Correct answer is: Effort estimation

Question
A temporary endeavour undertaken to create a unique ____________.

Select one:
a. All of above
b. Result
c. Service
d. Product

The Correct answer is: All of above.

Question
A program is a group of related _______________managed in a coordinated way to obtain benefits and control not available from managing them individually.

Select one:
a. Programs
b. Projects
c. Activities
d. phases

The Correct answer is: Projects

Question
According to a statistical report: “over 30% of all software projects are cancelled before completion and over 70% of the remainder fail to deliver expected features”. What must be the reason for such a situation ?

Select one:
a. All of the mentioned
b. Poor quality control
c. Poor change management
d. Poor requirements management

The Correct answer is: Poor requirements management

Question
An organization is certified to a stringent environmental standard and uses that as the key differentiator with its competitors. Alternative identification during scope planning for a particular project has thrown up an expeditious approach to achieve a project need, but this involves a risk of environmental contamination. The team evaluates that the likelihood of the risk is very low. What should the project team do?

Select one:
a. Plan all precautions to avoid the risk
b. Work out a mitigation plan
c. Drop the alternative approach
d. Procure an insurance against the risk

The Correct answer is: Drop the alternative approach

Question
Which of the following is not considered as a risk in project management?

Select one:
a. Specification delays
b. Testing
c. Staff turnover
d. Product competition

The Correct answer is: Testing

Question
A ______ has an objective that is typically defined around the ongoing operation.

Select one:
a. Process
b. Project
c. Program

The Correct answer is: project design

Question
Which pricing model/contract is suitable when requirement is not clear and client requires high level of flexibility or change request during the development process

Select one:
a. Fixed price
b. Time and material

The Correct answer is: Time and material

Question
In Equivalence Class Partitioning (EC- Weak Robust), a test case should have.

Select one:
a. All invalid values
b. One invalid value and the remaining values should be valid
c. None
d. All valid values

The Correct answer is: One invalid value and the remaining values should be valid

Question
Which of the following is not a project manager’s activity?

Select one:
a. project design
b. project management
c. project planning
d. project control

The Correct answer is: project design

Question
Which of the following are parameters involved in computing the total cost of a software development project?
Select one:
a. All of the mentione
b. Travel and training costs
c. Hardware and software costs
d. Effort costs

The Correct answer is: All of the mentione

Question
Parametric estimation techniques are based on:

Select one:
a. Uniform statistical data
b. conjecture of Project Manager and his/her team
c. Historical data on similar projects
d. expert opinion

The Correct answer is: Historical data on similar projects

Question
An estimation technique ____________measure the size of the functionality to be developed.
Select one:
a. Analogy
b. Function Point
c. WBS

The Correct answer is: Function Point

Question
After a study of the work processes on a project, a quality audit team reports to the project manager that irrelevant quality standards were being used by the project, which might lead to rework. What was the objective of the project manager in initiating this study?

A. Quality control
B. Quality planning
C. Checking adherence to processes
D. Quality assurance

The Correct answer is: Quality assurance

Question
Which of the following is not generally considered a stakeholder in the software process?
Select one:
a. end users
b. project team
c. sales team
d. customer

The Correct answer is: sales team[doubtful]

Question
Which model is used to compute the effort required to integrate reusable components or program code that is automatically generated by design or program translation tools?

Select one:
a. An application-composition model
b. An early design model
c. A reuse model
d. A post-architecture model

The Correct answer is: A reuse model

Question
What is the simplest model of software development paradigm?

Select one:
a. Big Bang model
b. Spiral model
c. V-model
d. Waterfall model

The correct answer is: Waterfall model

Question
The PERT technique gives most weightage to:
Select one:
a. the most pessimistic estimate obtained
b. the most optimistic estimate obtained
c. the most likely estimate obtained
d. all the estimates obtained have equal weights

The correct answer is: the most likely estimate obtained

Question
Which of the following is not a commonly used technique for schedule compression:
Select one:
a. quality reduction
b. use of overtime
c. scope reduction
d. resource reduction

The correct answer is: resource reduction

Question
To detect fraudulent usage of credit cards, the following data mining task should be used

Select one:
a. Outlier analysis
b. prediction
c. association analysis
d. feature selection

The correct answer is: Outlier analysis

Question
One of the best ways to avoid frustration during the software development process is to:
Select one:
a. Hide bad news from the project team members until things improve.
b. Give team members more control over process and technical decisions.
c. Give team members less control over process and technical decisions.
d. Reward programmers based on their productivity.

The Correct answer is: Give team members more control over process and technical decisions.

Question
Select from the following which is not project management goal
Select one:
a. Delivering the software to the customer at the agreed time.
b. Keeping overall costs within budget.
c. Maintaining a happy and well-functioning development team.
d. Avoiding costumer complaints.

The Correct answer is: Avoiding costumer complaints.

Question
Arrange the following steps to form a basic/general Engineering Process Model. 1. Test 2. Design 3. Install 4. Specification 5. Manufacture 6. Maintain
Select one:
a. 2, 4, 5, 1, 3, 6
b. 2, 4, 5, 1, 6, 3
c. 4, 2, 5, 1, 3, 6
d. 4, 2, 5, 1, 6, 3

The Correct answer is: 4, 2, 5, 1, 3, 6

Question
------------------ is the linear software development lifecycle methodology
Select one:
a. Prototyping
b. Spiral
c. Agile
d. Waterfall

The Correct answer is: Waterfall

Wednesday, 24 October 2018

Software Project Management - MCQS



Question
Project has uncertainties on some functionalities at the beginning which will improve over time. Which software development model is suitable?
Select one:
a. None of the above
b. Waterfall
c. Iterative
d. Incremental

The Correct answer is: None of the above

Question
The prototyping model of software development is

Select one:
a. A reasonable approach when requirements are well defined.
b. A risky model that rarely produces a meaningful product.
c. The best approach to use for projects with large development teams.
d. A useful approach when a customer cannot define requirements clearly.

The Correct answer is: A useful approach when a customer cannot define requirements clearly.

Question
The objective of ____ is to determine a specific value based on a predetermined discount rate.

Select one:
a. project evaluation and review technique (PERT)
b. return on investment (ROI)
c. cost/benefit analysis
d. net present value (NPV)

The Correct answer is: net present value

Question
Which of the following is not an effective software project management focus?

Select one:
a. process
b. product
c. popularity
d. people

The Correct answer is: popularity

Question
Object point method best suited for

Select one:
a. Designing
b. Testing
c. Coding
d. Estimation

The correct answer is: Estimation

Question
This term is least critical from customer view point
Select one:
a. UAT
b. Unit testing
c. Delivery timeliness
d. Milestones

The Correct answer is: Milestones

Question
Following method is not used for project planning

Select one:
a. Activity Diagram
b. CPM
c. Timesheet
d. Gantt chart

The Correct answer is: Timesheet

Question
There are ________ types of Work Breakdown Structures.
Select one:
a. Four
b. Three
c.  none
d. Two
The Correct answer is: Two
Question
If Task A to complete, it takes 10 days of human effort. It started 5 days earlier to the scheduled date and completed on 35th day. Then, the float value

Select one:
a. 25
b. 10
c. 20
d. 15

The Correct answer is: 25
Question
The following is not a phase activity of waterfall model

a. architecture
b. Requirements analysis
c. Software enhancement
d. System testing

The Correct answer is: Software enhancement

Question
WBS in a project deals with

a. none of the above
b. designing
c. project reviews
d. division of work into tasks

The Correct answer is: division of work into tasks.

Question
Which of the following estimation method is independent of technology, methodology and platforms

a. Function point
b. work breakdown structure
c. delphi
d. SLOC

The Correct answer is: Function point

Question
Which of the following is not achieved by an automated estimation tools?
Select one:
a. Predicting clients demands.
b. Predicting software schedules.
c. Predicting software cost.
d. Predicting staffing levels.

The Correct answer is: Predicting clients demands.

Question
The Mangers use the acronym SMART while goal setting. What does SMART stand for?
Select one:
a. spectacular, measurable, actionable, resourced, timely
b. specific, measurable, achievable, relevant, timely
c. suitable, measurable, actionable, reviewed, timely
d. standardised, measurable, actionable, resourced, timely

The Correct answer is: specific, measurable, achievable, relevant, timely

Question
Which of these is NOT true for a matrix organizational structure?
Select one:
a. It follows the unity of command principle rigorously
b. Task and personality conflicts are a disadvantage of Matrix structure
c. Individual operators have to do double reporting both to a Project Manager and to the Functional manager
d. It is generally employed in project driven organizations

The Correct answer is: It follows the unity of command principle rigorously

Question
Which of the following is incorrect activity for the configuration management of a software system?

Select one:
a. System management
b. Version management
c. Internship management
d. Change management

The Correct answer is: Internship management

Question
Arrange the following steps to form a basic/general Engineering Process Model.

1)Test
2)Design
3)Install
4)Specification
5)Manufacture
6)Maintain

Select one:
a. 4, 2, 5, 1, 3, 6
b. 2, 4, 5, 1, 3, 6
c. 4, 2, 5, 1, 6, 3
d. 2, 4, 5, 1, 6, 3

The Correct answer is: 4, 2, 5, 1, 3, 6

Question
Which of the following software development model is suitable for large size project?

Select one:
a. Water fall
b. XP
c. Incremental
d. Prototyping

The Correct answer is: Incremental

Question
In FP, adjustment factor is measured in the range of

Select one:
a. 16 – 20
b. 0 – 5
c. 6 – 10
d. 11 – 15

The Correct answer is: 0 – 5

Question
Which model is used during early stages of the system design after the requirements have been established?

Select one:
a. An application-composition model
b. A reuse model
c. A post-architecture model
d. An early design model

The Correct answer is: An early design model

Question
Project management (PM) is the application of _________________ to meet project requirements.
Select one:
a. skills, tools and techniques
b. knowledge, skills, tools and techniques
c. knowledge, tools and techniques
d. knowledge, skills, tools

The Correct answer is: knowledge, skills, tools and techniques

Question
A ____ is the sequence of processing steps that completely handles one business transaction or customer request
Select one:
a. Model
b. Workflow
c. Prototype
d. Mock-up

The Correct answer is: Workflow

Question
______ model is not suitable for accommodating any change
Select one:
a. Waterfall Model
b. Prototyping Model
c. Build & Fix Model
d. RAD Model

The Correct answer is: Waterfall Model

Question
Smith is a project manager for ABC Video games. He has produced a project network diagram and has updated the activity list. Which process have he just finished?
Select one:
a. The Activity Sequencing process, which identifies all the activities dependences
b. The Activity Sequencing process, which identifies all the specific activities of the project
c. The activity duration Estimating process, which identifies all the dependent activities of the project
d. The activity duration Estimating process, which diagram project network time estimates

Question
What type of measure is LOC?

Select one:
a. Indirect
b. Delphi
c. Direct
d. Top down

The Correct answer is: Direct

Question
RAD Software process model stands for _____.

Select one:
a. Relative Application Development.
b. Rapid Application Design.
c. Recent Application Development.
d. Rapid Application Development.

The Correct answer is: Rapid Application Development.

Question
A team working on a sprint learns that it will not be able to achieve the sprint goal, then which of the following action is most appropriate to take:

Select one:
a. Keep working to get as close to the sprint goal as possible and all the unfinished items are moved back to the product backlog after the end of the current sprint.
b. Change the sprint goal to what seems achievable
c. Declare the sprint as failed and work out an alternative plan to reach the sprint goal
d. Cancel the sprint and immediately start a new sprint

The Correct answer is: Keep working to get as close to the sprint goal as possible and all the unfinished items are moved back to the product backlog after the end of the current sprint.

Question
Success is measured through the success criteria established for an individual project or program that should answer which of the following question/s:

Select one:
a. Are there benefits to what was delivered?
b. Did the process used to get to the end point work well?
c. Did the project deliver what was asked for?
d. All of above

The Correct answer is: All of above

Question
Which technique is applicable when other projects in the same analogy application domain have been completed?

Select one:
a. Algorithmic cost modelling
b. Parkinson’s Law
c. Estimation by analogy
d. Expert judgement

The Correct answer is: Estimation by analogy

Question
A _________ is developed using historical cost information that relates some software metric to the project cost.

Select one:
a. Estimation by analogy
b. Parkinson’s Law
c. Expert judgement
d. Algorithmic cost modelling

The Correct answer is: Algorithmic cost modelling

Question
Which of the following costs is not part of the total effort cost?
Select one:
a. Costs of support staff
b. Costs of lunch time food
c. Costs of networking and communications
d. Costs of providing heating and lighting office space

The Correct answer is: Costs of lunch time food

Question
Which of the following is the process of assembling program components, data, and libraries, and then compiling and linking these to create an executable system?
Select one:
a. Change management
b. Version management
c. Release management
d. System building

The Correct answer is: System building

Question
What should be done by the project manager to ensure that all work in the project is included?

Select one:
a. Create a scope statement
b. Create a contingency plan
c. Create a WBS
d. Create a risk management plan

The Correct answer is: Create a WBS

Question
What the system should do is described by the _____________requirement

Select one:
a. Functional
b. Non-functional

The Correct answer is: Functional

Question
The ______________should be followed to ensure software quality management of the project
Select one:
a. Time
b. Cost
c. processes
d. scope

The Correct answer is: processes

Question
When can selected common process framework activities be omitted during process decomposition?

Select one:
a. Any time the software is mission critical.
b. Never—the activities should always occur
c. When the project is extremely small in size.
d. Rapid prototyping does not require their use

The Correct answer is: Never—the activities should always occur

Question
What is the first step in Project Planning?

Select one:
a. Establish the objectives and scope.
b. Determine the project constraints.
c. Determine the budget.
d. Select a team organizational model.

The Correct answer is: Establish the objectives and scope

Question
Project managers have to assess the risks that may affect a project.

Select one:
a. True
b. False

The Correct answer is: False

Question
Which of the following is a people-intensive activity?
Select one:
a. Project management
b. Organization
c. Motivation
d. Problem solving

The Correct answer is: Project management

Question
What are the signs that a software project is in trouble?
Select one:
a. Changes are managed poorly.
b. Deadlines are unrealistiC)
c. The product scope is poorly defineD)
d. All of the given options.

The Correct answer is: All of the given options.

Question
One technique of Black Box testing is Equivalence Partitioning. In a program statement that accepts only one choice from among 10 possible choices,numbered 1 through 10, the middle partition would be from _____ to _____

Select one:
a. 1 to 10
b. 0 to 10
c. 4 to 6
d. None

The Correct answer is: 1 to 10

Question
_____ is not a phase of Prototyping Model

Select one:
a. Engineer Product
b. Coding
c. Quick Design
d. Prototype Refinement

The Correct answer is: Coding

Question
Advantages of using LOC (lines of code) as a size-oriented metric is

Select one:
a. LOC is easily computed.
b. LOC can be computed before a design is completed.
c. LOC is a language dependent measure.
d. LOC is a language independent measure.

The Correct answer is: LOC is easily computed.

Question
Which one of the statements is correct - BVA is to use input variable values at

Select one:
a. Only on normal, minimum and just above the minimum
b. Only on normal and minimum values but not on maximum values
c. Only on normal, maximum and just below maximum
d. Only on normal, minimum, just above minimum, maximum and just below maximum

The Correct answer is: Only on normal, minimum, just above minimum, maximum and just below maximum

Question
If a software production gets behind schedule, one can add more programmers and catch up.
Select one:
a. True
b. False

The Correct answer is: False

Question
Which of the following is not a Software Configuration Management Activity?

Select one:
a. Configuration item identification
b. Release management
c. Branch management
d. Risk management

The Correct answer is: Risk management

Question
A 66.6% risk is considered as

Select one:
a. high
b. very low
c. moderate
d. low

The Correct answer is: Decomposition

Question
Which of the following is not project management goal?

Select one:
a. Maintaining a happy and well-functioning development team
b. Delivering the software to the customer at the agreed time
c. Keeping overall costs within budget
d. Avoiding customer complaints

The Correct answer is: Avoiding customer complaints

Question
The project life cycle consists of
Select one:
a. Objectives of the project
b. All of the above
c. Formulation and planning various activities
d. Understanding the scope of the project

The Correct answer is: All of the above

Question
The following is not a prototype type

Select one:
a. Throw away
b. Throw in
c. Incremental
d. None of the above

The Correct answer is: Throw in

Question
The project planner examines the statement of scope and extracts all important software functions which is known as

Select one:
a. Decomposition
b. All of the given options
c. Planning process
d. Association

The Correct answer is: Decomposition

Question
If no. of error before delivery is 15 and no. of defects after delivery is 25 then, DRE is

Select one:
a. 0.625
b. 0.375
c. 2.65
d. 1

The Correct answer is: 0.375

Question
The term ____ refers to all the people who have an interest in the successful implementation of the system

Select one:
a. stakeholders
b. clients
c. users
d. middle managers

The Correct answer is: stakeholders

Question
Which of the following is a requirement management activity ?

Select one:
a. Construction and Test
b. Design
c. Investigation
d. All of the mentioned

The Correct answer is: All of the mentioned

Question
If an activity on the critical path takes longer than anticipated, then:

A. Activities not on the critical path have additional slack.
B. Activities not on the critical path have less slack.
C. Additional critical path activities will appear.
D. None of the above.

The Correct answer is: Activities not on the critical path have additional slack.

Question
A _________ is defined as "the work breakdown that covers the acquisition of a specific defense material item and is related to contractual effort." Select correct option:

Select one:
a. Contract WBS
b. Program WBS
c. None of given
d. Contract Program WBS

The Correct answer is: Program WBS

Question
Requirements are refined and analyzed to assess their clarity, completeness, and_______

Select one:
a. Concurrency
b. None of given
c. Consistency
d. Correctness

The Correct answer is: Consistency

Question
This is done before a Project begins

Select one:
a. Project review
b. Effort estimation
c. Time estimation
d. User Acceptance

The Correct answer is: Effort estimation

Question
A temporary endeavour undertaken to create a unique ____________.

Select one:
a. All of above
b. Result
c. Service
d. Product

The Correct answer is: All of above.

Question
A program is a group of related _______________managed in a coordinated way to obtain benefits and control not available from managing them individually.

Select one:
a. Programs
b. Projects
c. Activities
d. phases

The Correct answer is: Projects

Question
According to a statistical report: “over 30% of all software projects are cancelled before completion and over 70% of the remainder fail to deliver expected features”. What must be the reason for such a situation ?

Select one:
a. All of the mentioned
b. Poor quality control
c. Poor change management
d. Poor requirements management

The Correct answer is: Poor requirements management

Question
An organization is certified to a stringent environmental standard and uses that as the key differentiator with its competitors. Alternative identification during scope planning for a particular project has thrown up an expeditious approach to achieve a project need, but this involves a risk of environmental contamination. The team evaluates that the likelihood of the risk is very low. What should the project team do?

Select one:
a. Plan all precautions to avoid the risk
b. Work out a mitigation plan
c. Drop the alternative approach
d. Procure an insurance against the risk

The Correct answer is: Drop the alternative approach

Question
Which of the following is not considered as a risk in project management?

Select one:
a. Specification delays
b. Testing
c. Staff turnover
d. Product competition

The Correct answer is: Testing

Question
A ______ has an objective that is typically defined around the ongoing operation.

Select one:
a. Process
b. Project
c. Program

The Correct answer is: project design

Question
Which pricing model/contract is suitable when requirement is not clear and client requires high level of flexibility or change request during the development process

Select one:
a. Fixed price
b. Time and material

The Correct answer is: Time and material

Question
In Equivalence Class Partitioning (EC- Weak Robust), a test case should have.

Select one:
a. All invalid values
b. One invalid value and the remaining values should be valid
c. None
d. All valid values

The Correct answer is: One invalid value and the remaining values should be valid

Question
Which of the following is not a project manager’s activity?

Select one:
a. project design
b. project management
c. project planning
d. project control

The Correct answer is: project design

Question
Which of the following are parameters involved in computing the total cost of a software development project?
Select one:
a. All of the mentione
b. Travel and training costs
c. Hardware and software costs
d. Effort costs

The Correct answer is: All of the mentione

Question
Parametric estimation techniques are based on:

Select one:
a. Uniform statistical data
b. conjecture of Project Manager and his/her team
c. Historical data on similar projects
d. expert opinion

The Correct answer is: Historical data on similar projects

Question
An estimation technique ____________measure the size of the functionality to be developed.
Select one:
a. Analogy
b. Function Point
c. WBS

The Correct answer is: Function Point

Question
After a study of the work processes on a project, a quality audit team reports to the project manager that irrelevant quality standards were being used by the project, which might lead to rework. What was the objective of the project manager in initiating this study?

A. Quality control
B. Quality planning
C. Checking adherence to processes
D. Quality assurance

The Correct answer is: Quality assurance

Question
Which of the following is not generally considered a stakeholder in the software process?
Select one:
a. end users
b. project team
c. sales team
d. customer

The Correct answer is: sales team[doubtful]

Question
Which model is used to compute the effort required to integrate reusable components or program code that is automatically generated by design or program translation tools?

Select one:
a. An application-composition model
b. An early design model
c. A reuse model
d. A post-architecture model

The Correct answer is: A reuse model

Question
What is the simplest model of software development paradigm?

Select one:
a. Big Bang model
b. Spiral model
c. V-model
d. Waterfall model

The correct answer is: Waterfall model

Question
The PERT technique gives most weightage to:
Select one:
a. the most pessimistic estimate obtained
b. the most optimistic estimate obtained
c. the most likely estimate obtained
d. all the estimates obtained have equal weights

The correct answer is: the most likely estimate obtained

Question
Which of the following is not a commonly used technique for schedule compression:
Select one:
a. quality reduction
b. use of overtime
c. scope reduction
d. resource reduction

The correct answer is: resource reduction

Question
To detect fraudulent usage of credit cards, the following data mining task should be used

Select one:
a. Outlier analysis
b. prediction
c. association analysis
d. feature selection

The correct answer is: Outlier analysis

Question
One of the best ways to avoid frustration during the software development process is to:
Select one:
a. Hide bad news from the project team members until things improve.
b. Give team members more control over process and technical decisions.
c. Give team members less control over process and technical decisions.
d. Reward programmers based on their productivity.

The Correct answer is: Give team members more control over process and technical decisions.

Question
Select from the following which is not project management goal
Select one:
a. Delivering the software to the customer at the agreed time.
b. Keeping overall costs within budget.
c. Maintaining a happy and well-functioning development team.
d. Avoiding costumer complaints.

The Correct answer is: Avoiding costumer complaints.

Question
Arrange the following steps to form a basic/general Engineering Process Model. 1. Test 2. Design 3. Install 4. Specification 5. Manufacture 6. Maintain
Select one:
a. 2, 4, 5, 1, 3, 6
b. 2, 4, 5, 1, 6, 3
c. 4, 2, 5, 1, 3, 6
d. 4, 2, 5, 1, 6, 3

The Correct answer is: 4, 2, 5, 1, 3, 6

Question
------------------ is the linear software development lifecycle methodology
Select one:
a. Prototyping
b. Spiral
c. Agile
d. Waterfall

The Correct answer is: Waterfall

Software Testing Methodologies - MCQS


Question

A regression test

Select one:
a.  Will always be automated
b. Can only be run during user acceptance testing
c. Will help ensure unchanged areas of the software have not been affected
d. Will help ensure changed areas of the software have not been affected

The Correct answer is: Will help ensure unchanged areas of the software have not been affected

Question
The inputs for developing a test plan are taken from

Select one:
a. Support plan
b. Business plan
c. Project Plan
d. None

The Correct answer is: Project Plan

Question
Weak Robust Equivalence Class Testing is defined as:

Select one:
a. Weak refers to the single fault assumption
b. Robust comes from the consideration of invalid values
c. All
d. The name of the form Weak Robust is counterintuitive and oxymoronic

The correct answer is: All

Question
Data set {brown, black, blue, green , red} is example of

Select one:
a. Ordinal attribute
b. Continuous attribute
c. Numeric attribute
d. Nominal attribute

The correct answer is: Nominal attribute

Question
What are the two important requirements of class partitioning?

Select one:
a. Disjointedness and partial-completeness
b. Completeness and Non-Redundancy
c. Partial-completeness and Non-Redundancy
d. Completeness and Redundancy

The correct answer is: Completeness and Non-Redundancy

Question 
The specification: an integer field shall contain values from and including 1 to and including 12 (number of the month) Which equivalence class partitioning is correct?

Select one:
a. Less than 1, 1 through 11, and above
b. Less than 1, 1 through 12, larger than 12
c. Less than 0, 1 through 12, larger than 12
d. Less than 1, 1 through 11, larger than 12

The correct answer is: Less than 1, 1 through 12, larger than 12

Question 
RADAR system operates in normal temp (28 degC), maximum temp at (70 degC) and minimum temp at (-30 degC) as per the specification. At which temperatures do you test the system for normal boundary value testing?

Select one:
a. 28 degC, 70 degC, -30 degC, 72 degC, -28 degC
b. 28 degC, 70 degC, -30 degC, 72 degC, -33 degC
c. 28 degC, 70 degC, -30 degC, 69 degC, -29 degC
d. 28 degC, 70 degC, -30 degC, 68 degC, -33 degC

The correct answer is: 28 degC, 70 degC, -30 degC, 69 degC, -29 degC

Question
A lot consists of 10 good articles, 4 with minor defects and 2 with major defects. Two articles are chosen from the lot at random (without replacement).
Find the probability that:
both have major defects, 
Both are Good,
Neither is Good.

Select one:
a. 3/8
b. 91/120
c. 1/8
d. 1/120

The Correct answer is:
Both have major defects - 1/120
Both are Good -  3/8
Neither is Good - 1/8
Question
How much testing is enough

Select one:
a. The answer should be standardized for the software development industry
b. The answer depends on the maturity of your developers
c. The answer depends on the risks for your industry, contract and special requirements
d. This question is impossible to answer

The Correct answer is: The answer depends on the risks for your industry, contract and special requirements

Question
Which of the following statement is correct for Strong Robust Equivalence Class Testing?

Select one:
a. Robust comes from consideration of invalid values of inputs
b. Strong refers to the single fault assumption
c. All
d. Robust comes from consideration of invalid values of outputs

The Correct answer is: Robust comes from consideration of invalid values of inputs


Question
Number of unique test cases generated in Worst-Case Boundary Value Analysis for a function of n variables is
(For Robust Worst-Case Boundary Value Analysis - 7^n)
Select one:
a. 4n+1
b. 5^n
c. 7^n
d. 6n+1

The Correct answer is: 5^n

Question
Number of unique test cases generated in Robust Boundary Value Analysis for a function of n variables is

Select one:
a. 7n+1
b. 6n+1
c. 4n+1
d. 7*n

The correct answer is: 6n+1

Question
If a candidate is given an exam of 40 questions, should get 25 marks to pass (61%) and should get 80% for distinction,what is equivalence class?

Select one:
a. 30, 36, 39
b. 32, 37, 40
c. 23, 24, 25
d. 0, 12, 25

The Correct answer is: 32, 37, 40

Question
Strong normal equivalence class testing is based on:

Select one:
a. Single fault assumption
b. None
c. Not covering all the equivalence classes
d. Multiple fault assumption

The Correct answer is: Multiple fault assumption

Question
In specification based testing, what are the valid perspectives through which a system can be looked into?
Select one:
a. End User/Consumer
b. All
c. Customer/Client
d. Alpha/Beta User

The Correct answer is: All

Question
Basic Testing terms as per IEEE

Select one:
a. Error,Fault,Failure and Incident
b. Defect,System Halt,System Restart
c. Bug,Bug Report,solution
d. Severe error, Incident Raising,Shutdown

The correct answer is: Error,Fault,Failure and Incident
NOTE: As per the statement give here - anomaly section https://goo.gl/WJx3vr
Question
It is conducted to validate that the application, database, and network that is running can handle projected volumes

Select one:
a. Stress / Load Testing
b. Functional Testing
c. Integration Testing
d. Recovery Testing

The Correct answer is: Stress / Load Testing

Question
Testing process is best described as:

Select one:
a. Executing a program to validate its performance
b. Executing a program with the intent of finding errors
c. Executing a program to validate its efficiency
d. Executing a program to sign-off its accuracy

The Correct answer is: Executing a program with the intent of finding errors

Question
Alpha Testing is:

Select one:
a. Post- release testing by end user representatives at the developer's site
b. Pre- release testing by    end user represe ntatives at   their sites
c. Pre- release testing by end user representatives at the developer's site
d. The first testing that is performed

The Correct answer is: Pre- release testing by end user representatives at the developer's site


Question
A black-box test technique is

Select one:
a. Independent of implementation
b. Based on specifications
c. All
d. A functional testing focuses on input and corresponding output

The Correct answer is: All

Question
Boundary Value Analysis focuses on:
Select one:
a. The boundary of the input space to identify test cases
b. The boundary of the output space to identify test cases
c. None
d. The boundary of the inner space to identify test cases

The Correct answer is: None

Question
What are the criteria for good Test Cases?

Select one:
a. Neither too simple nor too complex
b. All
c. High probability of finding a defect which is yet to be discovered
d. It is not redundant

The Correct answer is: All

Question
Which of the following would form a part of a test plan?

1. Features to be tested
2. Incident Reports
3. Risks
4. Schedule

Select one:
a. 1,3 and 4 only
b. 2 and 4 only
c. 1 only
d. 1  and  3 only

The correct answer is:1,3 and 4 only

Question 
Find the Equivalence class for the following test case. Enter a number to test the validity of being accepting the numbers between 1 and 99

Select one:
a. Number = 0
b. All numbers 99
c. All numbers greater than 99
d. All numbers between 1 and 99

The correct answer is: All numbers between 1 and 99

Question 
Equivalence partitioning examples in RL 3 discusses

Select one:
a. Finding max of two numbers only
b. Finding max of 1 to 1000 numbers and max of two numbers
c. Finding max of 1000 numbers and max of three numbers
d. Finding max of two numbers and max of three numbers

The correct answer is: Finding max of 1000 numbers and max of three numbers

Question 
Consider the statement, “If number is divisible by 33 then number is divisible by 3 and by 11.” Which of the following statements is equivalent to this statement?

Select one:
a. If number is divisible by 3 and divisible by 11 then number is divisible by 33.
b. If number is not divisible by 33 then number is not divisible by 3 or not divisible by 11.
c. If number is not divisible by 3 or not divisible by 11 then number is not divisible by 33.
d.  If number is not divisible by 33 then number is divisible by 3 or divisible by 11.

The correct answer is: If number is not divisible by 3 or not divisible by 11 then number is not divisible by 33.

Question 
An input field takes the number from 10 to 50. The boundary values for testing this field are:

Select one:
a. 9,10,50,51
b. 10,30,50
c. 10,15,50,55
d. 9,30,51

The correct answer is:  9,10,50,51

Question 
Code reviews is a part of

Select one:
a. Dynamic testing
b. Static Testing
c. Static and Dynamic testing
d. None

The correct answer is: Static Testing

Question 
Boundary Value Analysis focuses on:
Select one:
a. The boundary of the input space to identify test cases
b. The boundary of the output space to identify test cases
c. The boundary of the inner space to identify test cases
d. None

The correct answer is: The boundary of the input space to identify test cases

Question 
Bug life cycle

Select one:
a. Assigned, Open, Closed, Fixed
b. Open, Assigned, Fixed, Closed
c. Assigned, Open, Fixed, Closed
d. Open, Fixed, Assigned, Closed

The correct answer is: Open, Assigned, Fixed, Closed

Question 
Boundary value testing

Select one:
a. Test boundary conditions on, below and above the edges of input and output equivalence classes
b. Tests combinations of input circumstances
c. Is used in white box testing strategy
d. Is the same as equivalence partitioning tests?

The correct answer is: Test boundary conditions on, below and above the edges of input and output equivalence classes

Question 
Identify the invalid Set operation

Select one:
a. Union
b. Complement
c. Addition
d. Intersection

The correct answer is: Addition

Question 
Which one of the statements is  - BVA is to use input variable values at
Select one:
a. Only on normal, minimum and just above the minimum
b. Only on normal, maximum and just below maximum
c. Only on normal, minimum, just above minimum, maximum and just below maximum
d. Only on normal and minimum values but not on maximum values

The correct answer is: Only on normal, minimum, just above minimum, maximum and just below maximum

Question 
A lock which opens with a sequence of digits is an example for

Select one:
a. Regular lock
b. Combination lock
c. Permutation lock
d. Both Permutation and Combination lock

The correct answer is: Permutation lock

Question 
Which of the following is an example of an Error-handlingTesting?

Select one:
a. Attempted access without a proper password to the on-line data entry and display transactions (notification to the user of invalid authentication) will be tested.
b. System is stressed beyond its specifications to check how and when it fails. Performed under heavy load like putting large number beyond storage capacity, complex database queries, and continuous input to system or database load.
c. Testing evaluated against the performance requirements by measuring the run times of several jobs using production data volumes
d. Testing to confirm that app can recover from all types of errors when they occur without terminating the application.

The correct answer is: Testing to confirm that app can recover from all types of errors when they occur without terminating the application.

Question 
Which of the following statements about functional testing is true?

1. Structural testing is more important than functional testing as it addresses the code
2. Functional testing is useful throughout the lifecycle and can be applied by business analysts, testers, developers, and users.
3. Functional testing is more powerful than static testing as you actually run the system and see what happens.
4. Inspection is a form of Functional Testing.

Select one:
a. 1 and 3 only
b. 2 only
c. 1 only
d. 2 and 4 only

The correct answer is:  2 only

Question
Which of the following types of testing are carried out for an erroneous input by the end user?

Select one:
a. Performance testing
b. Error handling testing Correct
c. Conversion testing
d. Parallel testing

The correct answer is: Error handling testing

Question 
Which one of the following represents the Specification Based Testing only?

Select one:
a. Decision Tables, Ad-hoc, Exploratory, Control Flow
b. Decision Tables, Boundary Value Analysis, Equivalence Partitioning
c. Boundary Value Analysis, Control Flow, Data Flow
d. Equivalence Partitioning, Decision Tables, Data Flow

The correct answer is: Decision Tables, Boundary Value Analysis, Equivalence Partitioning

Question
V-Process Model can be used for the development of R&D Projects

Select one:
a. I Don't Know
b. False
c. True

The correct answer is: False

Question 
Which of the following models is most appropriate for R&D oriented projects?

Select one:
a. Waterfall Model
b. Rapid protoyping
c. Incremental development
d. Research-and-Risk Model

The correct answer is: Rapid protoyping

Question 
Pick the correct statement from the following:

Select one:
a. IF uncertainty is high, THEN use incremental approach
b. IF schedule is tight THEN use evolutionary or incremental
c. IF complexity is high but uncertainty is not THEN use evolutionary approach
d. IF uncertainty and complexity both low THEN use Prototype model

The correct answer is: IF schedule is tight THEN use evolutionary or incremental

Question 
Identify the common Agile Project Management method:

Select one:
a. Software Development Life Cycle (SDLC) Model
b. FlexPlan Model
c. SCRUM Methodology
d. V-Process Model

The correct answer is: SCRUM Methodology

Question 
What should a project manager do or follow to ensure clear boundaries for project completion?
Select one:
a. scope definition
b. Scope verification
c. Completing a scope statement
d. Risk management plan

The correct answer is: Completing a scope statement

Question 
Project requirements continuously change, but change can be easily accommodated in a software project as per customer’s demand when:

Select one:
a. Meeting Customer Expectation is of High Priority
b. Software is written in High-Level Language which is flexible
c. Scope Change is included in the Master Contract
d. There is no impact on Schedule or Cost or Quality

The correct answer is: There is no impact on Schedule or Cost or Quality

Question
Any Project will have a set of Activities that are practical to implement:

Select one:
a. I Don't Know
b. TRUE
c. FALSE

The correct answer is: TRUE

Question 
If you were to choose one factor that significantly differentiates IT projects from non-IT projects, what would that be?

Select one:
a. Technology advances
b. Communication
c. Volatile Requirements
d. Environmental Risk

The correct answer is: Volatile Requirements

Question 
Which of the following tools of Project Management indicates who is responsible for what?

Select one:
a. Activity network chart
b. Resource levelling chart
c. Programme evaluation chart
d. Resource assignment chart

The correct answer is: Resource assignment chart

Question 
Contract Manager is also Project Manager who: (select the most appropriate answer)

Select one:
a. Manages project on behalf of the client
b. Deals with contractual terms of the out-sourced project
c. Delegates his/her responsibility to vendor organization
d. Reports project status to stakeholders in the client organization

The correct answer is: Manages project on behalf of the client

Question 
Calculation of Payback period of a project provides the organization :

Select one:
a. The overall income that the implemented system should produce, less any initial investment
b. An assessment of how quickly an implemented system will produce a profit
c. How much future income from an implemented project will be worth in present day terms
d. The discount rate that would give a payback with a net present value of zero

The correct answer is: An assessment of how quickly an implemented system will produce a profit

Question 
Which of the following is NOT a Project?

Select one:
a. Building of a large ERP System
b. Development of a Software Product
c. Customer Support Call Handling
d. Design of a next generation SmartPhone

The correct answer is: Customer Support Call Handling

Question 
Identify from the below who is NOT a typical project stakeholder: 

Select one:
a. End-user of the Project
b. Shareholder of the vendor organization
c. Project Manager 
d. CFO of the client organization

The correct answer is: Shareholder of the vendor organization

Question 
Which is the important attribute for Agile Project Management?

Select one:
a. Detailed Requirements Capture
b. Clear Requirements
c. Constant Communication
d. Customer Conflict Resolution

The correct answer is: Constant Communication

Question
Which definition is best suited for a well-defined process?

Select one:
a. Something which cannot be measured, cannot be controlled
b. Something which can be measured, cannot be controlled
c. Something which cannot measured, can be controlled
d. None

The correct answer is: Something which can be measured, cannot be controlled

Question 
Which process is applied to break down the project in to smaller and more manageable elements?

Select one:
a. Scope Estimation
b. Activity Duration Estimation
c. Work Break-Down Structure
d. Schedule Planning

The correct answer is: Work Break-Down Structure

Question
Find the invalid equivalence class for the following test case. Draw a line up to the length of 4 inches

Select one:
a. Line with 1 dot-width
b. line with 1 inch.
c. line with 4 inches
d. Curve

The Correct answer is: Curve

Question 
Types of Equivalence Classes are

Select one:
a. All
b. Weak Normal, Strong Normal, Weak Robust, Strong Robust
c. Weak Normal, Robust Normal, Weak Robust, Strong Robust
d. Weak Normal, Strong Normal, Weak Robust, Normal Robust

The Correct answer is: Weak Normal, Strong Normal, Weak Robust, Strong Robust

Question 
Which one is the valid recommendation for identification of valid equivalence class?

Select one:
a. No need to look for membership in a group
b. No need to look for range in numbers
c. Equivalence class for invalid inputs
d. None

The Correct answer is: Equivalence class for invalid inputs

Question 
One technique of Black Box testing is Equivalence Partitioning. In a program statement that accepts only one choice from among 10 possible choices,numbered 1 through 10, the middle partition would be from _____ to _____

Select one:
a. 0 to 10
b. 4 to 6
c. None
d. 1 to 10

The Correct answer is: 1 to 10

Question 
Test strategy is prepared as part of

Select one:
a. Test cases
b. Test Plan
c. Test scenarios
d. Test Procedure

The Correct answer is: Test Plan

Question 
Assume postal rates for ‘light letters’ are:$0.25 up to 10 grams;$0.35 up to 50 grams;$0.45 up to 75 grams;$0.55 up to 100 grams Which test inputs (in grams) would be selected using boundary value analysis?

Select one:
a. 0, 9, 19, 49, 50, 74, 75, 99, 100
b. 0, 1, 10, 11, 50, 51, 75, 76, 100, 101
c. 10, 50, 75, 100, 250, 1000
d. 25, 26, 35, 36, 45, 46, 55, 56

The Correct answer is: 0, 1, 10, 11, 50, 51, 75, 76, 100, 101

Question 
What would be the first step in project planning
Select one:
a. select a team organizational model.
b. establish the objectives and scope.
c. determine the budget.
d. determine the project constraints.

The correct answer is: establish the objectives and scope.

Question 
TCP is a Data-link Layer Protocol in OSI Network Model

Select one:
a. I Don't Know
b. True
c. False

The correct answer is: False

Question 
Which definition is best suited for a well-defined process?

Select one:
a. Something which cannot be measured, cannot be controlled
b. Something which can be measured, cannot be controlled
c. Something which cannot measured, can be controlled
d. None

The Correct answer is: Something which can be measured, cannot be controlled

Question 
Your organization is considering to run a project which will entail an investment of Rs 1,00,00,000. The product from the project is forecasted to create revenues of Rs 25,00,000 in the first year after the end of the project and of Rs 42,00,000 in each of the two following years. What is true for the net present value of the project over the three years cycle at a discount rate of 10%?
Select one:
a. The net present value is positive, which makes the project unattractive.
b. The net present value is negative, which makes the project unattractive.
c. The net present value is negative, which makes the project attractive.
d. The net present value is positive, which makes the project attractive.

The correct answer is: The net present value is negative, which makes the project unattractive.

Question 
Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of a Project?

Select one:
a. Uniqueness
b. Routine activity
c. Limited resources
d. Interrelated tasks

The correct answer is: Routine activity

Question
The output of product testing is:

Select one:
a. Test Data
b. Test Reports
c. Test Plan
d. Test Cases

The correct answer is: Test Reports

Question 
Software Quality Assurance activities are integral part of:

Select one:
a. ISO-9001 compliance
b. Project planning
c. Total Quality Management
d. Business planning

The correct answer is: Project planning

Question 
The Quality Management Standard adopted by Wipro Technologies for Software Development is:

Select one:
a. Quality Assurance Model
b. ISO 14001
c. Six-Sigma   
d. ISO 9000

The correct answer is: ISO 9000

Question 
JavaScript is an Object-Oriented version of Java Programming language

Select one:
a. I Don't Know
b. True
c. False

The correct answer is: False

Question 
"I hereby declare I am honest in all my statements and affirm that I sincerely answered all the Questions by myself based on my understanding of the topic, and I seek clarification on any Question/Answer by sharing it with my Faculty during the regular Contact-sessions."

Select one:
True
False

Congratulations....Wish You Happy Learning.

The correct answer is 'True'.

Question 
Your organization is considering to run a project which will entail an investment of Rs 1,00,00,000. The product from the project is forecasted to create revenues of Rs 25,00,000 in the first year after the end of the project and of Rs 42,00,000 in each of the two following years. What is true for the net present value of the project over the three years cycle at a discount rate of 10%?

Select one:
a. The Net Present Value is negative, which makes the project attractive
b. The Net Present Value is positive, which makes the project attractive.
c. The Net Present Value is negative, which makes the project unattractive
d. The Net Present Value is positive, which makes the project unattractive

The correct answer is: The Net Present Value is negative, which makes the project unattractive

Question
Shareholder of company can also be one of the Stakeholders in a Project

Select one:
a. I Don't Know
b. True
c. False

The correct answer is: False

Question 
ISO 9001:2000 is a standard that defines which of the following?

Select one:
a. IT Project Deliverables 
b. Software Testing Procedures
c. Project Management Standard 
d. Quality Management Systems 

The correct answer is: Quality Management Systems

Question 
Metrics Baselining for a project primarily involves:

Select one:
a. Defining a reference standard for measurement
b. Collection of data from past projects
c. Estimating target schedules
d. Identifying industry benchmarks

The correct answer is: Collection of data from past projects

Question 
Which of these would be the best way to improve morale, motivate workforce and avoid frustration during the software development process?
Select one:
a. Give team members less control over process and technical decisions.
b. Hide bad news from the project team members until things improve.
c. Reward programmers based on their productivity.
d. Give team members more control over process and technical decisions.

The correct answer is: Give team members more control over process and technical decisions.

Question 
The best strategy for a project manager when he/she receives  a complaint from customer regarding already late (schedule over-runned software project) is: 

Select one:
a. Add more people to the project
b. Renegotiate schedule with customer
c. Part-delivery of requirements
d. Training the project team

The correct answer is: Part-delivery of requirements

Question 
Which of the following is found to contribute significantly to software project problems?

Select one:
a. Poor programming skills
b. Poor requirements capture
c. Insufficient Testing & Validation
d. Unavailability of software architects

The correct answer is: Poor requirements capture

Tuesday, 23 October 2018

Data Mining - MCQS



Question

Which of the following activities is NOT a data mining task?
Select one:
a. Monitoring the heart rate of a patient for abnormalities
b. Monitoring and predicting failures in a hydropower plant
c. Predicting the future stock price of a company using historical records
d. Extracting the frequencies of a sound wave
The correct answer is: Extracting the frequencies of a sound wave

Question
Which of the following is not a data mining task?

Select one:
a. Feature Subset Detection
b. Association Rule Discovery
c. Regression
d. Sequential Pattern Discovery

The correct answer is: Feature Subset Detection
Question
Value set {poor, average, good, excellent} is an example of
Select one:
a. Nominal attribute
b. Numeric attribute
c. Continuous attribute
d. Ordinal attribute
The correct answer is: Ordinal attribute

Question
Which data mining task can be used for predicting wind velocities as a function of temperature, humidity, air pressure, etc.?

Select one:
a. Cluster Analysis
b. Regression
c. Clasification
d. Sequential pattern discovery

The correct answer is: Regression

Question
Identify the example of sequence data

Select one:
a. weather forecast
b. data matrix
c. market basket data
d. genomic data

The correct answer is: genomic data

Question
In a data mining task where it is not clear what type of patterns could be interesting, the data mining system should
Select one:
a. handle different granularities of data and patterns
b. perform all possible data mining tasks
c. allow interaction with the user to guide the mining process 
d. perform both descriptive and predictive tasks
The correct answer is: allow interaction with the user to guide the mining process
Question 
Removing duplicate records is a data mining process called________
Select one:
a. data isolation
b. recovery
c. data pruning
d. data cleaning 
The correct answer is: data cleaning
Question 
Various visualization techniques are used in ___________ step of KDD
Select one:
a. selection
b. interpretation 
c. transformation
d. data mining
The correct answer is: interpretation
Question 
Which of the following is not a Visualization Method?
Select one:
a. Hierarchical visualization technique
b. Tuple based visualization Technique
c. Icon based visualization techniques
d. Pixel oriented visualization technique 
The correct answer is: Tuple based visualization Technique

Question
Data set {brown, black, blue, green , red} is example of

Select one:
a. Continuous attribute
b. Ordinal attribute
c. Numeric attribute
d. Nominal attribute

The correct answer is: Nominal attribute

Question
Which of the following is NOT a data quality related issue?

Select one:
a. Attribute value range
b. Outlier records
c. Missing values
d. Duplicate records

The correct answer is: Attribute value range

Question
To detect fraudulent usage of credit cards, the following data mining task should be used

Select one:
a. Outlier analysis
b. prediction
c. association analysis
d. feature selection

The correct answer is: Outlier analysis
Question 
Which of the following is NOT example of ordinal attributes?
Select one:
a. Ordered numbers
b. Military ranks
c. Zip codes
d. Movie ratings 
The correct answer is: Zip codes
Question 
Which of the following is not a data pre-processing methods
Select one:
a. Data Cleaning
b. Data Visualization 
c. Data Discretization
d. Data Reduction
The correct answer is: Data Visualization
Question 
Incorrect or invalid data is known as _________
Select one:
a. Outlier
b. Missing data
c. Changing data
d. Noisy data 
The correct answer is: Noisy data

Question
Which of the following is an Entity identification problem?

Select one:
a. One person with different email address
b. One person's name written in different way
c. Title for person
d. One person with multiple phone numbers

The correct answer is: One person's name written in different way
Question 
Data Visualization in mining cannot be done using
Select one:
a. Graphs
b. Information Graphics
c. Charts
d. Photos 
The correct answer is: Photos
Question
Nominal and ordinal attributes can be collectively referred to as_________ attributes
Select one:
a. perfect
b. consistent
c. qualitative
d. optimized
The correct answer is: qualitative
Question 
The number of item sets of cardinality 4 from the items lists {A, B, C, D, E}
Select one:
a. 20
b. 2 
c. 10
d. 5
The correct answer is: 5
Question 
Identify the example of Nominal attribute
Select one:
a. Salary
b. Temperature 
c. Gender
d. Mass
The correct answer is: Gender
Question 
Which of the following are descriptive data mining activities?
Select one:
a. Clustering
b. Deviation detection 
c. Regression
d. Classification
The correct answer is: Clustering

Question 
Which statement is not TRUE regarding a data mining task?
Select one:
a. Deviation detection is a predictive data mining task
b. Classification is a predictive data mining task 
c. Clustering is a descriptive data mining task
d. Regression is a descriptive data mining task
The correct answer is: Regression is a descriptive data mining task
Question 
Correlation analysis is used for
Select one:
a. identifying redundant attributes
b. eliminating noise
c. handling missing values
d. handling different data formats 
The correct answer is: identifying redundant attributes
Question 
In Binning, we first sort data and partition into (equal-frequency) bins and then which of the following is not a valid step
Select one:
a. smooth by bin boundaries
b. smooth by bin median 
c. smooth by bin values
d. smooth by bin means
The correct answer is: smooth by bin values

Question 
Which of the following is NOT data mining efficiency/scalability issue?
Select one:
a. The running time of a data mining algorithm
b. Incremental execution
c. Data partitioning 
d. Easy to use user interface
The correct answer is: Easy to use user interface
Question 
Synonym for data mining is
Select one:
a. Data Warehouse
b. Knowledge discovery in database
c. Business intelligence
d. OLAP 
The correct answer is: Knowledge discovery in database
Question 
Data scrubbing can be defined as
Select one:
a. Check field overloading
b. Delete redundant tuples
c. Use simple domain knowledge (e.g., postal code, spell-check) to detect errors and make ions
d. Analyzing data to discover rules and relationship to detect violators 
The correct answer is: Use simple domain knowledge (e.g., postal code, spell-check) to detect errors and make ions
Question 
Dimensionality reduction reduces the data set size by removing _________
Select one:
a. irrelevant attributes 
b. composite attributes
c. derived attributes
d. relevant attributes
The correct answer is: irrelevant attributes
Question 
In asymmetric attibute
Select one:
a. Range of values is important
b. No value is considered important over other values
c. Only non-zero value is important
d. All values are equals 
The correct answer is: Only non-zero value is important
Question 
Which of the following is not a data mining task?
Select one:
a. Feature Subset Detection 
b. Regression
c. Sequential Pattern Discovery
d. Association Rule Discovery
The correct answer is: Feature Subset Detection
Question 
Which of the following is NOT an example of data quality related issue?
Select one:
a. Using a field for different purposes 
b. Contradicting values
c. Noise
d. Multiple date formats 
The correct answer is: Multiple date formats
Question 
Similarity is a numerical measure whose value is
Select one:
a. Higher when objects are more alike
b. Lower when objects are more alike
c. Increases with Minkowski distance
d. Higher when objects are not alike 
The correct answer is: Higher when objects are more alike
Question 
The dissimilarity between two data objects is
Select one:
a. Lower when objects are more alike
b. Higher when objects are more alike
c. Lower when objects are  not alike
d. Applies only categorical attributes 
The correct answer is: Lower when objects are more alike
Question 
The important characteristics of structured data are

Select one:
a. Resolution, Distribution, Dimensionality ,Objects
b. Sparsity, Centroid, Distribution , Dimensionality
c. Dimensionality, Sparsity, Resolution, Distribution 
d. Sparsity, Resolution, Distribution, Tuples

The correct answer is: Dimensionality, Sparsity, Resolution, Distribution

Question 
Which of the following statement is not TRUE for a Tag Cloud

Select one:
a. Tag cloud is a visualization of statistics of user-generated tags 
b. Tag cloud can be used for numeric data only
c. The importance of a tag is indicated by font size or color
d. Tags may be listed alphabetically in a tag cloud

The correct answer is: Tag cloud can be used for numeric data only

Question 
Which of the following data mining task is known as Market Basket Analysis?

Select one:
a. Clasification
b. Regression
c. Association Analysis 
d. Outlier Analysis

The correct answer is: Association Analysis

Question 
Which of the following is not a Data discretization Method?

Select one:
a. Histogram analysis
b. Cluster Analysis
c. Data compression
d. Binning

The correct answer is: Data compression

Question 
Which of the following activities is a data mining task?

Select one:
a. Monitoring the heart rate of a patient for abnormalities
b. Dividing the customers of a company according to their profitability 
c. Extracting the frequencies of a sound wave
d. Predicting the outcomes of tossing a (fair) pair of dice

The correct answer is: Monitoring the heart rate of a patient for abnormalities

Question 
Sorted data (attribute values ) for price are: 4, 8, 9, 15, 21, 21, 24, 25, 26, 28, 29, 34. Identify which is NOT a bin smoothed by boundaries?

Select one:
a. Bin 2: 21, 21, 25, 25
b. Bin 1: 4, 4, 4, 15 
c. Bin 1: 4, 4, 15, 15
d. Bin 3: 26, 26, 26, 34

The correct answer is: Bin 1: 4, 4, 15, 15

Question
The difference between supervised learning and unsupervised learning is given by

Select one:
a. unlike unsupervised learning, supervised learning needs labeled data
b. unlike unsupervised learning, supervised learning can be used to detect outliers
c. unlike supervised leaning, unsupervised learning can form new classes
d. there is no difference

The Correct answer is: unlike unsupervised learning, supervised learning needs labeled data

Question 
The Data Sets are made up of

Select one:
a. Data Objects
b. Attributes 
c. Dimensions
d. Database

The correct answer is: Data Objects

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